GK One-Liners

What: The International Olympic Committee (IOC) has confirmed cricket’s inclusion in the Los Angeles 2028 Olympics — marking the sport’s return to the Games for the first time since the 1900 Paris Olympics, a gap of 128 years. The format will be Twenty20 (T20), with 6 teams per gender category and a quota of 90 athletes per gender (15-member squads). The LA 2028 Games will feature a record 351 medal events and a total athlete quota of 10,500. The host nation USA is likely to receive a direct qualification berth; other teams will qualify via International Cricket Council (ICC) rankings.

How: Cricket was played at the 1900 Paris Olympics as a one-off event, with only two teams competing — Great Britain and France — making it one of the least-contested Olympic sports in history. Its long absence was attributed to cricket’s concentrated popularity in Commonwealth nations and the dominance of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), which had historically resisted ICC’s Olympic push. The T20 format’s brevity (approximately 3 hours per match) was the key factor enabling its reintegration into the Olympic schedule.

Why: Cricket’s Olympic return is among the most significant sports governance developments of 2025 and will be tested extensively across Banking, SSC, and UPSC current affairs. Key MCQ anchors: last Olympic appearance (1900 Paris), gap (128 years), format (T20), teams per gender (6), athlete quota per gender (90), total medal events at LA 2028 (351), total athlete quota (10,500), qualification route (ICC rankings). The 1900 context — only GB and France competed — is an additional layer for UPSC-level questions.

What: Telangana became the first state in India to implement Scheduled Caste (SC) sub-categorisation following the Supreme Court’s landmark Constitution Bench verdict of August 1, 2024, which upheld states’ power to sub-classify SC reservations. The state reorganised its 59 SC sub-castes into three groups: Group-I (15 sub-castes, 1% reservation), Group-II (18 sub-castes, 9% reservation), and Group-III (26 sub-castes, 5% reservation). The enabling Bill was passed in the Telangana Assembly on March 18, 2025, received the Governor’s assent on April 8, and was gazetted on April 14, 2025.

How: The SC sub-categorisation debate arose because the reservation benefits within the SC category were disproportionately availed by relatively better-off sub-castes, leaving the most marginalised sub-castes — termed ‘Scheduled Castes within Scheduled Castes’ — underrepresented. The Supreme Court’s 7-judge bench in the State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh case (Aug 1, 2024) overruled the earlier E.V. Chinnaiah verdict (2004) that had held all SCs as a homogeneous class. Telangana’s model creates tiered access to ensure the most disadvantaged sub-castes are prioritised.

Why: SC sub-categorisation is a landmark constitutional development for UPSC GS-II (reservation policy, Articles 341, 15, 16) and State PSC exams across southern India. Key facts: Telangana as first implementing state, 59 sub-castes → 3 groups (Group-I: 15/1%, Group-II: 18/9%, Group-III: 26/5%), SC bench verdict (Aug 1, 2024), Bill (Mar 18, 2025), Governor’s assent (Apr 8), gazette (Apr 14). The Supreme Court case name (Davinder Singh) and the overruled precedent (E.V. Chinnaiah, 2004) are UPSC Mains-level anchors.

What: Madhya Pradesh declared its 25th Wildlife Sanctuary — the Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Abhyaran — on April 14, 2025 (134th Ambedkar Jayanti). Located in Sagar district, the sanctuary covers 258.64 square kilometres and serves as a critical wildlife corridor connecting Panna Tiger Reserve and Madhav Tiger Reserve. It also links — via Kuno National Park (home to reintroduced cheetahs) — to Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan. The sanctuary protects tigers, leopards, vultures, and gharials.

How: Wildlife corridors are stretches of habitat that connect fragmented protected areas, allowing animals to move safely between reserves for breeding, foraging, and migration — essential for maintaining genetic diversity in isolated tiger populations. The Panna–Madhav corridor via Sagar district fills a critical gap in central India’s tiger landscape. The sanctuary’s additional link to Kuno NP is significant as it provides connectivity for both tigers (from Panna/Madhav) and cheetahs (from Kuno) through a shared landscape.

Why: New wildlife sanctuary declarations with corridor significance are high-yield for UPSC GS-III (biodiversity, protected area networks, Project Tiger, Project Cheetah) and Environment sections of State PSC exams. Key facts: state (Madhya Pradesh), serial number (25th WLS), name (Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Abhyaran), area (258.64 sq km), district (Sagar), corridor between (Panna TR + Madhav TR), Kuno NP link to Ranthambore, species (tigers, leopards, vultures, gharials), declaration date (Apr 14, 2025).

What: The India Justice Report (IJR) 2025 was released by Tata Trusts (which has published it since 2019), ranking states on the delivery of justice across police, judiciary, prisons, and legal aid. Among large states, Karnataka topped the ranking with a score of 6.78 out of 10 — notably, it is the only state in India to have filled SC/ST/OBC reservation quotas in both the police force and the judiciary. Andhra Pradesh ranked 2nd and Telangana 3rd (the biggest upward jump, from 11th to 3rd). West Bengal ranked lowest among large states (3.63). Among small states, Sikkim ranked 1st and Goa last.

How: The IJR evaluates states on quantitative indicators across four pillars: police (staffing, diversity, infrastructure), judiciary (judge vacancies, case pendency, gender representation), prisons (occupancy rates, undertrial proportions, staff ratios), and legal aid (funding, reach). The report does not rank states on outcomes like crime rates but on the structural capacity of justice delivery institutions — making it a unique governance assessment tool distinct from NCRB or court statistics reports.

Why: IJR rankings are tested in UPSC GS-II (judicial reforms, police reform, access to justice) and State PSC exams. Key facts: Karnataka (1st large state, 6.78/10, only state filling SC/ST/OBC quotas in police+judiciary), AP (2nd), Telangana (3rd, biggest jump), West Bengal (lowest, 3.63), Sikkim (1st small state), Goa (last small state), publisher (Tata Trusts, since 2019). The SC/ST/OBC quota compliance as Karnataka’s distinguishing feature is the most likely MCQ trigger.

What: Justice Dinesh Maheshwari, a former Judge of the Supreme Court of India, was appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India. He succeeds Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi in the role. The 23rd Law Commission was constituted on September 1, 2024 with a tenure running until August 31, 2027. Its full-time members include Advocate Hitesh Jain and Prof. D.P. Verma. The Commission’s key assigned tasks include examining the feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and the identification and repeal of obsolete laws.

How: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory, advisory body constituted by the Government of India through an executive order, typically for a three-year term. It conducts research and makes recommendations on legal reforms, draft bills, and international law. Each Commission is numbered sequentially — the 22nd Commission (chaired by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi) had also examined the UCC, submitting its report in 2023. The 23rd Commission continues that mandate alongside its broader law reform responsibilities.

Why: Law Commission appointments and its mandate on UCC are heavily tested in UPSC GS-II (constitutional bodies, judicial reforms, personal law) and current affairs sections. Key facts: Justice Dinesh Maheshwari (Chairperson, 23rd LCI), predecessor (Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, 22nd LCI), constitution date (Sep 1, 2024), tenure end (Aug 31, 2027), key tasks (UCC feasibility, obsolete law repeal), members (Advocate Hitesh Jain, Prof. D.P. Verma). The non-statutory nature of the Law Commission — often confused with a constitutional body — is a UPSC trap worth noting.

What: Mohun Bagan Super Giant (MBSG) won the Indian Super League (ISL) 2024–25 title — the 11th edition of the ISL — defeating Bengaluru FC 2-1 in the final held at Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (VYBK) Stadium, Kolkata. It was MBSG’s second ISL title (their first was in 2022–23). They became only the second team in ISL history to win both the ISL League Shield (awarded to the regular-season table toppers) and the ISL Championship Title in the same season. Alaaeddine Ajaraie of NorthEast United FC (NEUFC) won both the Golden Boot (top scorer) and the Golden Ball (best player) awards.

How: The ISL Shield + Title double is considered the benchmark of a dominant season in Indian club football — requiring excellence over both the full league phase and the knockout stage. Mumbai City FC achieved this first in 2020–21 under coach Sergio Lobera, setting the standard. MBSG’s 2024–25 campaign replicated this feat, demonstrating consistent squad depth throughout the season. The final venue — VYBK Stadium, also known as the Salt Lake Stadium — is India’s largest football stadium with a capacity of approximately 85,000.

Why: ISL results, Golden Boot/Ball winners, and records are standard Sports GK content in Banking, SSC, and State PSC exams. Key facts: ISL edition (11th), result (MBSG beat Bengaluru FC 2-1), venue (VYBK Stadium, Kolkata), MBSG’s ISL titles (2nd; 1st was 2022–23), only 2nd team to win Shield+Title double (after Mumbai City FC 2020–21), Golden Boot + Golden Ball winner (Alaaeddine Ajaraie, NEUFC). The ATK Mohun Bagan name confusion (predecessor entity) is a frequent MCQ trap for this club’s history.